Alright I am playing this guy heads up at 1 2 NL, heres the hand
Full Tilt Poker Game #2190156774: Table Long (heads up) - $1/$2 - No Limit Hold'em - 22:24:30 ET - 2007/04/11
Seat 1: bulldawg ($156)
Seat 2: IHaveAStrong9 ($241.70)
IHaveAStrong9 posts the small blind of $1
bulldawg posts the big blind of $2
The button is in seat #2
*** HOLE CARDS ***
Dealt to IHaveAStrong9 [5c 8s]
IHaveAStrong9 raises to $6
bulldawg calls $4
*** FLOP *** [6d 9s 7c]
bulldawg checks
IHaveAStrong9 bets $7
bulldawg calls $7
*** TURN *** [6d 9s 7c] [9c]
bulldawg checks
IHaveAStrong9 bets $15
bulldawg raises to $30
IHaveAStrong9 has 15 seconds left to act
IHaveAStrong9 raises to $94
bulldawg raises to $143, and is all in
IHaveAStrong9 calls $49
I am going to post the river and results later, heres the main question that I have that applies to more then this single hand. My read on this guy was that he had trip 9s and possibly a straight draw, so 98 or 910. I was at least 95% sure of this, because the flow of the match was that he would almost always check raise me on the flop with a set or two pair. And I did not think he was a good enough player to fastplay a boat on the turn. Alright, now heres the dilemna. Since I put him on 98 or 910, he has quite a large number of outs to either chop or fill up on the river. If the hand is 98, then he has 10 outs, and if its 910, he has 13 outs. So I am either a 4 to 1 favorite or a 3 to 1 favorite. Since I have position here, is the best play to get all in with 75% to 80% equity, or to wait until the river to make sure he doesnt fill up?? This kind of thinking is strictly variance reduction, and it applies in many hands other this hand.
