copernicus
Friday, October 6th, 2006, 6:52 AM
QUOTE (PrtyPSux @ Friday, October 6th, 2006, 8:00 AM)

I've been meaning to post this situation, I think I figured out what the correct play is, but I want to know what u guys think.
Final table of a 30r or 50r I forget, Im 2nd in chips with 500k, my immediate left is on absolute fire and has 1 mil, other guy 34k, other guy 180k, and one with 200k...so basically I have HU almost guaranteed I think. Now, in tournament theory if i'm going for the win, how do you play this situation:
Folds to me in the SB with AJ, 5 handed blinds 8k/16k. Lets suppose that if you limp he makes it 50 every time, and if you open raise to 50 he makes it 200k or puts you all in with a huuuge range maybe Q10 and up and every pair, the rest of the hands he's just smooth calling to see a flop...
Considering the given info, how would you go about playing the hand.
I limp rr'd all in btw.
Your definition doesnt give his calling range to a reraise all-in. Lets assume its the same as his 200k raising range...all pairs and QT+ (17% of all hands). I'll also accept your premise that 1st place is all that matters, though in a 30 or 50 rebuy I think thats most likely a mistake with these chip positions.
The range you give him conventiently makes it a 50/50 hot and cold situation if all of the money goes in. In that case, allowing him to see the flop (assuming he is a good post flop player) gives him an escape with less than 50/50 chances and an edge the rest of the time. That makes letting him see a flop a mistake.
Limp reraise is therefore the right move. He commits more of his chips on average, and you dont give away anything post-flop.
Edit: If his calling range to your all-in narrows beyond the top 17% then raising is the right play, because it gives you FE for the difference between his raising range and his calling your repush range)