Party Poker No-Limit Hold'em, $ BB (9 handed) Hand History Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com (Format: FCP)

MP2 ($13.35)
MP3 ($19.40)
Hero ($50.90)
Button ($9.55)
SB ($35.13)
BB ($20.69)
UTG ($5.75)
UTG+1 ($45.26)
MP1 ($23.80)

Preflop: Hero is CO with J , J . SB posts a blind of $0.10.
UTG calls $0.25, 1 fold, MP1 raises to $1.5, 2 folds, Hero calls $1.50, 2 folds, BB calls $1.25, UTG folds.

Flop: ($4.85) 9 , 8 , 8 (3 players)
BB bets $2, MP1 calls $2, Hero raises to $7, BB folds, MP1 raises to $17, Hero folds.

Final Pot: $30.85


MP1 is very tight. According to poker tracker, in 40 hands he's seen like 3 flops and hasn't raised pre-flop before.

I think this is an obvious fold. I was a bit surprised by him just calling the BB's bet on the flop. My initial impulse with QQ, KK, or AA would be to raise there. Both to figure out where you are, and to avoid giving them a chance to catch up. With that thought in mind, I figured I'd raise to see if my hand was good. The re-raise pretty much signaling it wasn't in my mind.

Should I have rre-aised pre-flop? Anyone advocate calling this flop (to maybe see a cheap showdown and possibly catch our Jack or runner-runner)?

b/c of ur position i really think u need to raise this preflop...see what he does to ur raise...probably would give u a lot more info on the hand

Your sitting with a decent amount of chips here so gettn 3-1 on his last 10 bucks you have to call this with an overpair.

I too like a reraise preflop say to $4.5 or $5

Raise preflop. Fold to re-raise from tighty.

As played, call flop. MP1's play is confusing b/c he called/raised. I think 99, with him putting one of you on an overpair that could beat him if you hit.

if you put MP1 on a big hand why raise him when you only had a draw and were beat to his over pair?

you could have smoothed called him and hoped to spike a jack or get closer to your straight, but it would probably have set him to wondering if you were trapping or not and you could have gotten by cheaper to a showdown if all he had was AK

I was confused by him smooth calling the BB's bet on the flop. I suppose QQ, KK, or AA might smooth call there, but I'd be more inclined to raise with them. So, when he smooth called, I got to thinking he might not actually have such a big hand. I figured a raise would get rid of any non-pair holding.

Meh, rough board to smooth-call with AA. I think he was smooth-calling with a bigger hand, not thinking you'd come in too or even raise him.

Personally I would have re-raised preflop to about $3-$ to find out where we stood, by smooth calling preflop you kind of priced in the BB even though it didn't matter

QQ I don't want to have to play against more than 1 player

BB was trying to represent that he caught on the flop I think

Couldve thought you were stealing, and re bluffed with AK.

Certainly a possibility. OP, were you playing LAG?

Oops, my previous post makes more sense if its HU. The flat call from BB is really weird.

Meh he folded to our reraise so can't put him on anything we need to think about.

Im talking about MP1's play. Call/reraise? Very very weird line.

True,

Although 40 hands is not enough imo to really know his range, but assuming he is tight and is only playing pairs and say AK AQ etc what and why would he reraise?

If he has 88 or 99 he is boated

Underpair? 77 maybe?

I just dont understand what hand would call/reraise here. This is so unorthodox its hurting my head.
.
Question is, if villian is strong, why isnt he raising, making sure we dont get a good price to draw (if we were).
Then as soon as BB folds to our raise, villian RE RAISES? We have shown strength by raising with a caller in the middle, so does this mean villian always has to have a bigger hand? Im so confused

I too am confused, curse you crank for folding and and not giving us the results

Yeah, weird. He's either making a play back at our hero b/c he smells a steal, or he's got the nuts and wants to raise b/c he might get a call out of Hero.

Well, this is 50NL. The reraise following the call could simply be a reactive play, not one that the villain thought through. Something like raise preflop with QQ-AA, smooth call flop intending to "trap" the BB, gets an unexpected raise out of hero, and now is deciding to raise to take down pot now or extract value (a bad way to play it if he has this, imo). It could also be boated 9s who now figures that with the hero raising, he might have an overpair that might call here before the board potentially gets worse for the hero - that makes the most sense to me assuming the villain isn't outright stealing.

No. I was definitely playing TAG.



I'm glad I wasn't the only one that was confused with the call/re-raise line from villain. I was certainly tempted to blow some money just to see what he was doing this with, but discretion got all up in my face about it.

It seems way too much like 99 or 88. Just calling with the nut full house or quads makes sense, because you want others taking stabs at a pot that they are drawing almost dead or dead too. When the multiway pot is raised, then villain thinks he has someone biting and can take them for all of their chips. I don't think the play is that unorthodox.

That certainly has some merit. However, I didn't get the feeling that this player would raise to 6xBB with 8's or 9's from MP. If he would, I agree that he could play the flop this way.