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FCP Poker Forum > Poker Strategy Forum > Limit Texas Hold'em
tcats37
Not sure where this should be posted but thought I'd give the math wiz a chance to show their skills.
Here's what happened in consecutive hands in a $1-$2 full ring limit game on FCP a few days ago.
Player A and B get involve in a pot. After the flop, they're heads-up. Goes to the river and Player A wins the pot when he flops an Ace for a set of A-A which holds up against Player B's K-K.
The very next hand, Player A and B are in the hand and go to the river for a showdown. Player A again has A-A and Player B again has K-K. The only differences between hand 1 and hand 2 is that Player B drew a K on the flop to win the hand and that the A-A and K-K were not the same suit in both hands.

Can someone calculate the odds of this happening?
Thanks
T
PS I wasn't Player A or B
Actuary
QUOTE (tcats37 @ Friday, May 19th, 2006, 9:23 AM) *
Not sure where this should be posted


not in Strategy.
amarillotg
this should be posted in general. really there is no strategy involved in the situation.

but i am a math wiz and after some quick calculations the answer is a trillion - 1.

your welcome.
Rasty
Calculate odds? I don't even know how to spell meth.
cu in 4years Dan
i know all about mith reakky gooq.
but yeah post in general.
thats another thing! mith forum!
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