Not sure where this should be posted but thought I'd give the math wiz a chance to show their skills.
Here's what happened in consecutive hands in a $1-$2 full ring limit game on FCP a few days ago.
Player A and B get involve in a pot. After the flop, they're heads-up. Goes to the river and Player A wins the pot when he flops an Ace for a set of A-A which holds up against Player B's K-K.
The very next hand, Player A and B are in the hand and go to the river for a showdown. Player A again has A-A and Player B again has K-K. The only differences between hand 1 and hand 2 is that Player B drew a K on the flop to win the hand and that the A-A and K-K were not the same suit in both hands.
Can someone calculate the odds of this happening?
Thanks
T
PS I wasn't Player A or B
