Merby
Tuesday, January 10th, 2006, 6:03 PM
I disagree with the general concensus: I am calling here, no doubt. Remember that he thinks you are blindly aggressive, I think he puts in another raise pre-flop with KK as well as AA... in fact, based on your read of his read of your play, he's probably reraising with JJ through AA and AK (I would against a player like you in this situation). Let's look at the possibilities:
On the flop, with his all-in, you are faced with the decision of calling 4,000 to win 20,000. So you are getting 4 to 1 on your money.
What possible hands could he have here? I see him having:
a) AA or KK

JJ, TT
c) 99
d) A stone-cold bluff with AK or AQ.
One more thing: he
knows you like to make a continuation bet on a flop where you put the last raise in pre-flop, yet he bets out into you on the flop anyway... Given the play, I actually think it is far more likely he has AK, AQ and just wants to bluff the pot, or JJ, TT and wants to protect his very vulnerable hand. I really can't see him betting top set into you when he
knows that you will continuation bet the flop if he checks to you, but
doesn't know how you would play on a flop if someone bets into you on a flop that you raised pre-flop (at least, you haven't included the information here).
Therefore, I put his probable holdings as something like:
a) AA or KK (30 %)

JJ or TT (40 %)
c) 99 (10 %)
d AK or AQ (20 %)
I'm not going to run the math right now (I am busy right now), but I would suspect that you would have to be at least 80 % sure that he has AA, KK, or 99 in order to have odds of winning this hand be less than 4 to 1. I'm just not that convinced (as I said, I think it is far too likely he has JJ, TT AK or AQ).
I am calling this all-in bet.
Cheers,
Merby
p.s. My tournement game needs work, and this response is as much to see what others think as it is to offer my suggestion.