Okay i dont know much about omaha but we were just messin around at a home game the other night, and one of my know it all friends and i got in an argument.

I had KK98 or sumn and he had QQ65 and i dont remember which ones were suited but we each had just one pair of cards that was suited.. i had K sumn suited and he had Q sumn suited, and we were both suited in spades.

When the hand was over I ended up having the best hand, and he was like thats gay you're so lucky. I told him that i had him dominated preflop but he said that it was a coin flip.

Is it a coin flip if i have his suit covered and i have a higher pair than him to begin with, is it STILL a coin flip in omaha?

www.cardplayer.com has an odds calculator

All depends on your definition of the term coin flip
I guess... In Omaha, given that more cards are out,
you could put almost ANY two hands together
preflop and call it a coinflip.

It's just a different game than holdem. The term
"coinflip" applies almost all the time.

Few hands in Omaha are more than a 60/40 favourite preflop, however, this is one of them. According to twodimes, you are a 7:3 favourite.

Ks 8c Kd 9d 350749 70.15 149100 29.82 151 0.03 0.702
Qc Qd 6d 5h 149100 29.82 350749 70.15 151 0.03 0.298

Fell

what the? get back to RGP!

thehendonmob.com also has a calculator. It does more than the one on cardplayer. It can handle hold-em, stud, stud/8, omaha, omaha/8, and razz and can calculate up to a full table for all the games.

Remember the whole "coin flip" thing only applies to tournaments. In cash games, it's different. But even in a tournament, no. Those two hands aren't a coin flip. The kings are something like 70% to win preflop. The fact that you both have the same suit doesn't matter much.

Thanx.. i knew there werent many hands that werent like a coin flip but i figured there was no way i didnt have him dominated preflop even in omaha

*slinks away*

Fell