Saw this hand and wanted perspectives:

Our hand: A2xx

Action:
We're in BB, Villain is UTG+1 and limps, called in 2 spots I think. We check.

Flop: A22 (no flush draw)

We bet near pot, villain calls, rest fold

Turn: 10 (no flush draw)

We bet pot again, villain calls.

River: J

We bet pot, villain raises pot.

Read:

Villain hasn't done anything interesting, but is likely a single tabling random. I didn't recognize him from as a reg and am familiar with the 2/4 Stars games and did not have any notes.

is it possible Villain actually has AQK0x and is raising the straight for value?

I don't think he has AA because he would have raised the flop I think to price out the low draw. unless he had the 34 with the AA but that begs the question why didn't he raise pf?

more like a pair of JJ with an A (lowx) card or even a 23 or 34 I am thinking....Sucks though....tough spot.

i'd probably call but I am a POW in Omaha 8 sometimes.

um, this is omaha high.

I prefer c/c on the river, but it's hard to tell with this type of hand posting. Converted full hh's are better.

I would c/c river also.

I watched it played, it was on someone else's computer.

This is a pretty easy fold unless you believe UTG is capable of pulling off a gutsy bluff. Obviously, betting the river as hero is a big mistake too. Just check-call.

I think the correct play on the turn would be to check-raise, hoping to push villain off another A2 hand by representing AA, or to push him off AA by representing 22. By doing this you end up putting the same amount of money in as betting both streets, but give yourself some extra ways to win the pot.

If villain had A2JJ here, it would be pretty sick..

lol u can't be serious