simo_8ball
Wednesday, February 27th, 2008, 4:50 PM
Chances of flopping a set: 1 in 8.5
Chances of losing with that set: 18%
CODE
equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 81.413% 81.22% 00.19% 5215410 12253.50 { 22 }
Hand 1: 18.587% 18.40% 00.19% 1181223 12253.50 { KK }
Suppose we need to call "1" preflop and we need to win "Z" to break even:
1 in 8.5 we get Z in the middle overall. Of those, we make Z profit 82% of the time, and lose Z 18% of the time (or we win 82% of a 2Z pot = 1.64Z which is .64Z profit).
7.5 in 8.5 we lose 1.
0 = 1/8.5 x (.64 x Z) - 7.5/8.5
7.5 = 0.64 x Z
Z = 7.5/0.64 = 11.7
We need to get back 11.7x our preflop call if we get all of villain's money in every time we hit, and that is just to break even.
3 things to consider that sway the equation -
1) There is money in pot already, so that drops the Z value slightly.
2) MOST importantly, a fair amount of the time we don't stack them. The wider villain's raising range is, the worse the preflop call (for set value) becomes, because he is less likely to have a hand to pay us off.
3) Sometimes we win without hitting a set. Maybe we bet the flop, maybe they check the flop and we hit on the turn or we take it with a bet, or maybe they just check down with AK and don't improve.