ANTES/BLINDS
ramlosa1 posts blind ($0.50), raffe41 posts blind ($1).
PRE-FLOP
Beavis23 calls $1, iwinulose x calls $1, tonyla1 folds, Mardo303 calls $1, akishoreFCP calls $1, livinitup0 folds, 2quat4 calls $1, Scatt_Man calls $1, ramlosa1 calls $0.50, raffe41 checks.
(pot = $8 )
FLOP [board cards 8
ramlosa1 checks, raffe41 checks, Beavis23 bets $1, iwinulose x calls $1, Mardo303 folds, akishoreFCP bets $2, ...
hallelujah!
ok, i know almost EVERYONE in this situation calls here, but a few thoughts just ran through my head:
1. if someone is on a flush draw, they're going to call two anyway most likely--especially the ones with a flush draw plus pair. the king-high flush draw will also likely pay me off by possibly three-betting for a free card or three-betting for value if a lot of people call.
2. a made lower flush is going to damn well pay me off. might as well get full value.
3. if a lot of people fold behind me, they would have folded anyway, and i'm not getting overcalls anyway. PLUS, if a lot of people fold and i raise a blank turn (after calling the flop), my raise just screams slowplayed nut flush--isn't it super obvious? worse is if the turn brings a spade and the bettor/caller(s) fold to a bet/raise since they have no spade! (they would have called a raise on the flop, and i missed out on bets.)
4. if people are going to call behind me, they'll most likely call two cold unless they're really weak.
5. it'll be so obvious if i raise the turn. damn, i hate being super-readable. what other hand would slowplay this flop and then raise the turn? a set? i very much doubt it (everyone fastplays sets on monochrone flops so that they don't give free cards and also because they don't believe the bettor actually has a flush--they put him on a flush draw). a lower flush? not usually. damn, it's just so obvious...
so with those thoughts, i raised. was this okay?
aseem