I really don't get what your arguing about? How is he committing himself if he feels he has the best hand here a fair amount of the time. What do you expect a player to do here with Aces Up? Check the river? Of course he's going to bet what he thinks is the best hand and then go over whether his opponent is capable of making the raise without the flush afterwards.
Have you not seen the blind structures in the PS Invitationals? It doesn't exactly allow for a lot of play, you're not exactly able to play a ton of streets when you have only about 10 big blinds in your stack.
OK. I'm being too subtle here. Let me spell it out for you.
Lets look at all the information we have again.
Firstly we are assuming the villain is a good player.
Now how has he played the hand? There are 2 paths. 1 he has something. 2 he is bluffing. lets go down the first one.
he likes the flop as he bet into us. He then calls after thinking. At this point with a flush draw on the board he is either going to reraise here with 2-pair or a set or bet again on a safe turn. He didn't. (this is the point I was trying to make above)
So this means he likely has either a weak pair or a draw. As I said before, if he is drawing to a flush, he might like overcards as well to justify the call being OOP. Whilst he might also push with a flush draw on the flop, we know he doesn't have the A

so he
might be less likely to do so, although I'll concede it's less of a consideration HU
With a weak pair he may have an Ace kicker to justify his river bet, but would he not be tempted to raise our limp preflop with an Ace?
If he is on a draw he either has a flush or wheel draw. His wheel draw is less likely as he only has 6 clean outs and therefore the odds on the flop call are not there (remember he is OOP)
Now you can see there are reasons to doubt most of his holdings beyond a flush draw with overs. Or a weak pair hoping we are on the draw and will check behind on the turn (as we did)
So that brings it back to the river bet. It is likely to be with either a stronger flush or a weak hand trying to get us off. How much did he bet? $250,000 into a $420,000 pot. Does he want us to call? Looks like it to me
Now look at what he knows about our hand. (We are assuming we raise the river here) Again we either liked the flop or are bluffing. If we are bluffing is another $450,000 into a $670,000 pot on the river likely when the villain has represented the flush and is all but pot committed with weaker holdings? No. That means if we raise the river we are not bluffing, so lets replay the hand from the start and see what we have.
We raise the flop, so we have a piece of it, meaning either a draw or a good pair or better (This is why he has to raise the flop or bet at a safe turn card - a very important point you are not grasping). Then we check the turn, knowing that villain may have a flush draw. Is DN ever going to give an opponent a freecard to a flush/straight with top pair? Rarely. So the villain is probably going to assume that DN is likely on a draw.
Now the Ace, flush and straight all arrive, villain bets and we raise. WTF does he think we have?
Now we know all this, and he knows all this, and he knows that we know....
So as explained it is very unlikely he is at the river with 2-pair or set. He is more likely there with a good flush, a bluff, or on a long shot, the wheel.
Soooo.... with the exception of the wheel he's not calling unless he has us beat.
Now whilst all the evidence is wrapped up in likelys and such they are all good indicators and the point is, if we are beat we are still left with enough to carry on and if we aren't we are very unlikely to get value out of the raise
"I was under the impression that if it wasn't for the moons gravitational pull the ocean would just float into the air" Loismustdiet
"I enjoy watchin people make fulls of themselves." Mattnxtc