Blakesta 0 Posted February 20, 2005 Share Posted February 20, 2005 So I've been lurking around here reading some topics and I'm a fairly new beginer poker player. I play a lot of live tourneys, hardly at all online. I like to play some 4-8 games at my local card room sometimes, win some lose some. But on the topic of pot odds, I read somebody somewhere saying that if you hold a pair preflop, you are about 7.5-1 against flopping a set.Mathmatically that doesn't make sense to me, and I think I'm misunderstanding pot odds.Look, there's only 2 cards in the entire deck that can help you. Theres 50 unseen cards before the flop. Wouldn't the odds of you flopping a set then be 25-1? 50/2 isn't that the right figure? Somebody please help explain this. Thanks in advance. Link to post Share on other sites
Guest Posted February 20, 2005 Share Posted February 20, 2005 with pocket pairs your actually more like 8:1 i think but with implied odds it makes it okay to call with like 5:1. and i dont think that that type of math works here... i may be wrong and maybe someone with more knowledge than me will correct this but i believe that the math is obtained using a sample of hands and recording the percentage of times that they hit. you flop a set approx 11% of the time yeilding the the 89%:11% or 8:1 odds needed to make this call a profitable play... sounds good at least maybe smash or someone will comment? Link to post Share on other sites
CavemanDoctor 0 Posted February 21, 2005 Share Posted February 21, 2005 Blakesta,Your math would be correct...if the flop were only 1 card.As you have 3 chances to hit 2 of the 50, your odds of getting a set increase from 25:1 to about 8:1. Link to post Share on other sites
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