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poker ruling- reraising an undersized all in raise


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#1 jonnyz

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Posted 31 January 2005 - 08:00 PM

HelloI consider myself somewhat of an expert on poker rules and structure but a situation came up in my home game the other night and I made a ruling but now I am second-guessing it. Here is the situation...Cash Game Spread limit betting $2-$103 people in this betting roundPlayer A acts first and bets $10, Player B goes all in for $12. Player C calls the $12. Player A then wants to reraise or complete. I rule that no he cannot. My understanding of the rules are that Player A cannot reraise because the all in reraise was less than half the size of the bet. I am positive that is correct but now that I think about it I am not sure if he should be allowed to complete the bet. I have read a number of ?poker rules? and what I have gathered is because Player A was in the pot already,(with his $10 bet) the under raise does not open the raising to him again however since player C has not acted at all he has the option of call or completing.If this is true about Player C being allowed to complete the bet does that then reopen the betting for player A to raise??Anyone that knows the answer please reply.ThanksJon

#2 JistTheFist

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Posted 31 January 2005 - 08:05 PM

well... I'm not really sure about a spread limit type of thing but I know that in a 5/10 game if player raises to ten and then player B makes it 12 and player C calls that player A can make it a total of 17 to go. so in effect... I think that he should have been able to raise or complete at least.

#3 jonnyz

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Posted 31 January 2005 - 08:32 PM

Here is the rule from Bob Ciaffone's rule book that I use, just not sure if I am interpreting properly.... 5. In limit play, an all-in wager of less than half a bet does not reopen the betting for any player who has already acted and is in the pot for all previous bets. A player facing less than half a bet may fold, call, or complete the wager. An all-in wager of a half a bet or more is treated as a full bet, and a player may fold, call, or make a full raise. (An example of a full raise is on a $20 betting round, raising a $15 all-in bet to $35).

#4 JustinHEMI04

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Posted 01 February 2005 - 04:28 PM

I agree with your decision. I have seen this before also and ruled the same way. I have also seen it at a no limit table at a casino. Player A bets. Player B goes all in but at less than half the original bet. Player C calls. Player A attempts to go all in. Dealer says no calls floor floor rules he cannot do that because Player B's all in was less than half the original bet.Therefore, he did not complete the action. in order for player A to go all in at this time, Player B's all in would have had to been a full raise to complete the action. In your case, player B would have had to complete the action to 20 dollars in order for player A to be able to reraise. Player C however, still can act and opt to raise now. Can get confusing, but you were right.Justin
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#5 JFarrell20

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Posted 01 February 2005 - 04:45 PM

Player A should be able to re-raise. Sorry for player C. But his mistake is the fact that he only called the $12 all-in, instead of re-raising player A. Definitely definitely let player A re-raise player C. Why wouldn't you??? I don't get it... at least let player A re-raise the $2 raise... making it $14 to go. I believe that is the balance...yeah, player A maybe should not be able to re-raise 10... but he should be able to re-raise the raise... in other words $2 more. Confusing, but I think it's justified.Then, of course, after the flop, the normal rules ensue with the two active players in the pot.

#6 JustinHEMI04

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Posted 01 February 2005 - 05:12 PM

The point is the original action was never completed therefore player A has no right to furthur the action. I AGREE with you that this is kind of a dumb rule, but it also makes some sense when you think about it, and why the rule is the way it is. I see where whomever wrote it is coming from. But I also think that any action above the original, should count and player A should have had the right to reraise. But I didn't write the rules. :D Justin
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#7 sloshr

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Posted 01 February 2005 - 05:22 PM

One very important point you didn't give us about your rules. I generally don't play spread limit, so I don't know, but if player B was not all-in and just raised $2, could player A reraise? Can player B do this, or must a raise be at least the previous bet? If the short raise would be allowed if not all-in, clearly player A should be allowed to reraise. If not, you made the right decision. It is less than 1/2 a bet, so it is not counted as a bet, and player A would be raising himself, which is not allowed. This is why I am much more likely to call a $8 all-in than a $9 raise in a 3-6 limit game, since the originally bettor will almost always want to reraise.




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