Pupsta 0 Posted January 17, 2005 Share Posted January 17, 2005 2nd hand of a sit-n-go. I get dealt KK under the gun and limp. solid player that I've seen at tables before raises the 10/20 blinds to 120. 2 calls, and I reraise to 500 to hopefully isolate one or two of them. This will leave me with 1000 chips in case an ace flops and I need to get off my hand. The raiser calls, first caller calls, 2nd caller folds. 3 people going into the flop, flop comes J76 2 diamonds. I'm first to act, pot is at just over 1500, so I go allin for my remaining thousand, hoping to give the diamond draws a choice to draw for their tourney. Get one caller, the original raiser, with 77. Was this allin a bad move? I feel that it was a good move because it was the closest I could bet to the pot and the board didn't scare me whatsoever. Afterward, I got ridiculed by both the raiser and someone else at the table, that I "must have gotten caught up in the action" and "going allin with kings this early is a terrible move."Opinions? Constructive criticism? Link to post Share on other sites
2AceSuited 0 Posted January 17, 2005 Share Posted January 17, 2005 I think it was a bad move because anyone who called was either going to have a better hand than you, or the diamonds, which would be enough outs to go for it if they are aggressive. Link to post Share on other sites
Mandelbrot 0 Posted January 17, 2005 Share Posted January 17, 2005 What were the stack sizes of the two callers? Link to post Share on other sites
Pupsta 0 Posted January 17, 2005 Author Share Posted January 17, 2005 I think it was a bad move because anyone who called was either going to have a better hand than you, or the diamonds, which would be enough outs to go for it if they are aggressive.So what would the correct move be?I don't see checking it to be correct, because folding kings with that flop to any bet would be a helluva laydown, a statistical bad laydown if you put the other person on diamonds. If I lead out with a bet of 500 or so and get reraised allin, is it possible to fold? I don't see where I could have put anybody else in the hand on a hand that beats me other than AA or possibly JJ, and if someone had AA or JJ, I'll pay them off. What would have been the correct play if this was the wrong play? Link to post Share on other sites
2AceSuited 0 Posted January 17, 2005 Share Posted January 17, 2005 He said it was the 2nd hand of a sit n go so they must have all be equal, or very close to it. Link to post Share on other sites
Pupsta 0 Posted January 17, 2005 Author Share Posted January 17, 2005 What were the stack sizes of the two callers?It was the 2nd hand of the sit-n-go, first hand of the tourney the second caller raised and took the blinds down, so one of them had 30 chips on me. Link to post Share on other sites
Eskimo 0 Posted January 17, 2005 Share Posted January 17, 2005 2 calls, and I reraise to 500 to hopefully isolate one or two of them.Why not move all-in? I think its best to take the pot down right there. There is always that chance of someone calling with an AQ and hitting the aces on the flop.I think you should've gone all-in preflop. Link to post Share on other sites
Pupsta 0 Posted January 17, 2005 Author Share Posted January 17, 2005 2 calls, and I reraise to 500 to hopefully isolate one or two of them.Why not move all-in? I think its best to take the pot down right there. There is always that chance of someone calling with an AQ and hitting the aces on the flop.I think you should've gone all-in preflop.Thanks, appreciate the input. Link to post Share on other sites
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