3 replies to this topic

[MailleMas]

Ok, I KNOW I saw this somewhere on the forum, but I can't find it anywhere. It was with regards to a question about judging whether or not you where actually getting bad cards or just feel like it. Is there an average % that each of the ranking hands should have to be considered a 'normal distribution'. I'm not sure if I'm being very clear in what I'm asking so I'll give give an example:High card: XX%One pair: XX%Two pair: X%Three-of-a-kind: X%Straight:X%Flush:X%Full house: X%Four-of-a-kind: X%Straight flush: X%Someone with a decent database of hands in PT, or a far better working knowledge of probability math (as the teachers said - please show your work hehe) please help me out

[QWithATray]

do y0u mean for an individual or for the winning hand of the table?if you mean for an individual, it's the same as the distribution of 7 card stud hands (correct me if i'm wrong)here's the distribution:(from http://www.math.sfu....alspach/comp20/ )hand number Probability straight flush 41,584 .00031 4-of-a-kind 224,848 .0017 full house 3,473,184 .026 flush 4,047,644 .030 straight 6,180,020 .046 3-of-a-kind 6,461,620 .048 two pairs 31,433,400 .235 pair 58,627,800 .438 high card 23,294,460 .174 [/b]

[MailleMas]

I did mean an individual player QWithATray, so you chart should be exactly what I'm looking for, thanks. If you are wrong, I certainly can't think of why - 7 cards to make the best 5 card hand - should be the same odds no matter how you deal them.

[QWithATray]

if you're looking for "show your work" poker calculations the guy whose site I linked to has a bunch of interesting stuff, by the wayhttp://www.math.sfu.ca/~alspach/