Not sure if there's a thread going on about this...I just watched yesterday's NBC headsup tourney (had it on my DVD recorder). I saw Daniel's AK
vs. Antonio's 10-10.It looked like both at limped in pre-flop.On the flop there was something like 2
7
10
. (Not sure exactly, but there was a 2 card flush draw and Antonio's set of 10s - Antonio did not have a 10
).Antonio bets, Daniel raises and Antonio re-raises. (Later on while Daniel was standing next to Antonio awaiting the turn and river, he said something to the effect of "I figured you had a set".)Daniel decides to re-raise all-in.So given that Daniel put Antonio on a set and had the nut-flush draw, why go all-in? Was it:a) Semi-bluff all-in to try and make Antonio fold (which doesn't seem to make sense if Daniel figured Antonio had a set)?B) Why not gamble because if the heart falls and the board doesn't pair, Antonio is eliminated?c) The size of the pot? Pushing Antonio all-in wasn't going to cost him much more. And if the third heart fell on the turn, Antonio might consider folding, hence costing Daniel the extra chips he might have gained.I'm curious to know Daniel's thinking here. I see this play a lot online (all-in on draws). If Daniel had just called Antonio's re-raise, he would still have a playable stack if the heart didn't hit the turn and the board paired up (like it did).Just curious...
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