5 replies to this topic

[sprfcta]

What percentage of flops will come suited?

[econ_tim]

I guess it is 12/51 * 11/50, or about 5.2%.

[JFarrell20]

Yeah, not taking into account your cards or any opponents cards:The odds of 3 cards being of the same suit = 5.18% OR 18.32 to 1The odds of 3 cards having 2 of the same suit = 36.71% OR 1.71 to 1EDIT: Odds of a rainbow flop are 1.51 to 1 OR 39.76%I must be wrong though, because these are the only 3 types of flops you can have (a flop with 3 of the same suit, a flop with 2 of the same suit, or a flop with none of the same suit), and yet 39 + 36 + 5 doesn't add up to 100%. What happens the other 20% of the time? Mis-deal? lol.Someone point out what I'm missing if you can explain it.

[MrNiceGuy]

Odds of a two-suited flop are 55.06% (assuming no knowledge of any hole cards).

[JFarrell20]

MrNiceGuy said:

Odds of a two-suited flop are 55.06% (assuming no knowledge of any hole cards).

how'd you calc. that?

[Paz]

JFarrell20 said:

MrNiceGuy said:

Odds of a two-suited flop are 55.06% (assuming no knowledge of any hole cards).

how'd you calc. that?

Chance of first two cards being suited is any card plus a card of the same suit which would come up 12/51 times. The chance of the first two cards being suited with the third card a rag is 12/51 * 39/50 (a card of another suit).The probability of the first two cards not being suited would be 39/51. Since there are two cards of different suits already the chance of another card of matching suit is 24/50 (12 cards for one suit, 12 for the other). We get that the chance of 2 suited cards coming by the 3rd card is 39/51 * 24/50.So the total probability of two cards being suited on the flop is the sum of the chance that there will be 2 suited cards by the second card and by the third card, so it is just: 12/51 * 39/50 + 39/51 * 24/50. This turns out to be about 55.06%.