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#1 mikeysong

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Posted 06 February 2007 - 03:34 AM

Limit Holdem Ring gameLimit: $3/$66 playersConverterPre-flop: (6 players) Hero is UTG with 4:diamond: 4:spade: Hero raises, UTG+1 3-bets, CO caps, 3 folds, Hero calls, UTG+1 calls.13.67SBQuick check up. We have to call because of implied odds, right?

#2 Moneyball16

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Posted 06 February 2007 - 04:15 AM

Yup.

#3 Head_Trauma

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Posted 06 February 2007 - 08:25 AM

Someone correct me if I'm wrong, but I believe in order to correctly call with a PP preflop only for set value, we need somewhere between 4 and 5 to 1 (this assumes decent implied odds).Getting 5.75:1 on this call it looks like. Definitely a call.

#4 aim786

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Posted 06 February 2007 - 01:11 PM

View PostHead_Trauma, on Tuesday, February 6th, 2007, 8:25 AM, said:

Someone correct me if I'm wrong, but I believe in order to correctly call with a PP preflop only for set value, we need somewhere between 4 and 5 to 1 (this assumes decent implied odds).Getting 5.75:1 on this call it looks like. Definitely a call.
The exact odds against floppin a set are 7.5 (or 8.5, I always get it mixed up) to 1. With implied odds, this is a call pf.

#5 Head_Trauma

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Posted 07 February 2007 - 09:11 PM

View Postaim786, on Tuesday, February 6th, 2007, 1:11 PM, said:

The exact odds against floppin a set are 7.5 (or 8.5, I always get it mixed up) to 1. With implied odds, this is a call pf.
It is 7.5:1 (or 1 in 8.5 times). Yes I know this, but I think the consensus given implied odds is that in a limit game, it is correct to call only for set value when getting about 5:1 (because of the money we will usually make after we hit). Actually against 2+ opponents, getting 4:1 may be correct (more people to pay us off when we hit, although also more people to snap our hand).

#6 wildpegasusfan

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Posted 08 February 2007 - 10:52 AM

edited

#7 wildpegasusfan

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Posted 08 February 2007 - 10:54 AM

edited sorry about the double post.




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